Saturday, 24 November 2018

            Data Storage Technologies and Networks



Question 1
Which of the following is also known as In-band visualization
Select one:
 a. Asymmetric virtualization
 b. Symmetric virtualization 
 c. None of a) and b) are true
 d. Both a) and b) are true.
Feedback
The correct answer is: Symmetric virtualization


Question 2
 ( i) Block based deduplication is a deduplication technology
(ii) File level single instance is a deduplication technology
Choose the correct option from following
Select one:
 a. None of (i) and (ii) are true
 b. (i) is true but (ii) is false
 c. (i) is false but (ii) is true
 d. Both (i) and (ii) is true 
Feedback
The correct answer is: Both (i) and (ii) is true

Question 3
The interval of time that might pass during a disruption before the quantity of data lost during that period exceeds the Business Continuity Plan's maximum allowable threshold  is called

Select one:
 a. Either of a) or b)
 b. Recovery Point Objective
 c. None of a) or b)
 d. Recovery Time objective 
Feedback
The correct answer is: Recovery Point Objective

Question 4
 A NAS solution is most appropriate for what type of data environment
Select one:
 a. Shared access 
 b. Remote access
 c. Parallel access
 d. Secured Access
Feedback
The correct answer is: Shared access


Question 5
A Cumulative backup,
Select one:
 a. Contains the changes since the last backup, of any type, whichever was most recent
 b. Is a type of incremental backup that contains changes made to a file since the last full backup.
 c. None of the above
 d. Is a backup of all data on the target volumes, regardless of any changes made to the data itself. 
Feedback
The correct answer is: Is a type of incremental backup that contains changes made to a file since the last full backup.


Question 6
Which of the following does not support storage virtualization
Select one:
 a. Server
 b. RAM
 c. Storage device
 d. Network 
Feedback
The correct answer is: RAM


Question 7
 (i) FCIP encapsulates the entire FC frame into IP packets
(ii) iFCP encapsulates the entire FC frame into IP packets
Choose the correct option from following
Select one:
 a. Both (i) and (ii) are false
 b. (i) is flase but (ii) is true 
 c. Both (i) and (ii) is true
 d. (i) is true but (ii) is false
Feedback
The correct answer is: (i) is true but (ii) is false


Question 8
In a thin provisioning extent size is 768 kb. If a file of 2400 kb is written then the space allocated will be
Select one:
 a. 4 MB
 b. 3 MB
 c. 2400 KB 
 d. 2 MB
Feedback
The correct answer is: 3 MB

Question 9
1.      (i) Thin provisioning is a capacity optimization technology
(ii) Deduplication is a capacity optimization technology
 Choose the correct option from following

Select one:
 a. Both (i) and (ii) is true
 b. (i) is true but (ii) is false 
 c. (i) is false but (ii) is true
 d. None of (i) and (ii) are true
Feedback
The correct answer is: Both (i) and (ii) is true


Question 10
In Fiber channel Data transport services which of the following supports connection oriented and circuit switched communication mode?
Select one:
 a. Class 2
 b. Class 1 
 c. Class 3
 d. All of the above
Feedback
The correct answer is: Class 1

Question 11
Which layers in Fiber channel are also refereed as Fibre Channel Physical levels (FC-PH Levels)
Select one:
 a. FC-0, FC-1, FC-3
 b. FC-2, FC-3, FC-4
 c. FC-1, FC-2, FC-3
 d. FC-0, FC-1, FC-2 
Feedback
The correct answer is: FC-0, FC-1, FC-2

Question 12
Which of the following can be refereed as SAN islands as there is limited connectivity and there is a degree of isolation
Select one:
 a. Enterprise SAN FC fabric
 b. All of the above 
 c. FC switched fabric
 d. FCAL
Feedback
The correct answer is: FCAL

Question 13
 (i) File system can be virtualized
(ii) Block device can be virtualized
Choose the correct option from following
Select one:
 a. None of (i) and (ii) are true
 b. (i) is true but (ii) is false
 c. (i) is false but (ii) is true
 d. Both (i) and (ii) is true 
Feedback
The correct answer is: Both (i) and (ii) is true

Question 14
Which of the following supports block storage over IP
Select one:
 a. FCIP
 b. All of the above
 c. iFCP
 d. iSCSI 
Feedback
The correct answer is: All of the above

Question 15
 In ‘Hot backup’

Select one:
 a. Production database server is not in air conditioned environment
 b. Production database is not interrupted 
 c. Backup server is not in air conditioned environment
 d. Production database is interrupted
Feedback
The correct answer is: Production database is not interrupted

Question 16
In Synchronous replication
Select one:
 a. Commit occurs just before the next transaction happen in each of the replicas
 b. Commit never occurs.
 c. Commit occurs after all of the replicas are updated 
 d. Commit occurs after each of the replicas are updated
Feedback
The correct answer is: Commit occurs after all of the replicas are updated

Question 17 Which of the following is not correct about SAN
Select one:
 a. It supports File based I/O
 b. It can support higher bandwidth due to fiber channel
 c. It supports isolation and filtering 
 d. It supports centralized storage and management
Feedback

The correct answer is: It supports File based I/O
Question 18
Which of the following does not affect the storage performance?
Select one:
 a. Thin LUN
 b. Cache 
 c. CPU speed
 d. RAID
Feedback
The correct answer is: CPU speed

Question 19
Which of the following is not a storage array based replication
Select one:
 a. Full-volume mirroring
 b. File-system snap shot 
 c. Pointer-based full-volume replication
 d. Pointer-based virtual replication
Feedback
The correct answer is: File-system snap shot


Question 20
When host deletes data, thin provisioned array may not recognize it and can still show the space as used. The technology that recognizes that data is deleted by host and subsequently release the extents from array to free pool is called
Select one:
 a. Zero space reclamation 
 b. All of the above
 c. Compression
 d. Mapping
Feedback
The correct answer is: Zero space reclamation

  Data Storage Technologies and Networks





Question 1
If read and write performance is the only criterion, which would you choose?
Select one:
 RAID 0
 RAID 1 
 RAID 5
 RAID 50
Feedback
Your answer is incorrect.
The correct answer is: RAID 0


Question 2
Question text
Which of the following RAID levels guarantees double disk failure protection?
Select one:
 Raid 5
 Raid 6 
 Raid 0+1
 Raid 1+0
Feedback
Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is: Raid 6


Question 3
Question text
What is the capacity of the disk with 5 platters. 2 surfaces per platter, 20000 tracks per surface, 300 sectors per track and 512 bytes per sector
Select one:
 30.72GB 
 24.40GB
 21.40GB
 15.16GB
Feedback
Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is: 30.72GB

Question 4
Question text
Identify a network file protocol in the below mentioned set
Select one:
 FC
 CIFS
 SCSI 
 NAS


The correct answer is: CIFS


Question 5
How many disk failure can disk failure can be withstood by RAID 6?
Select one:
 1
 2 
 3
 4
Feedback
Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is: 2


Question 6
Question text
What is the memory bandwidth requirement of a machine executing 4*105 instructions per second, average instruction size of 3.8 bits and 7.2 bits of average operand size per instruction?
Select one:
 1.52 Mbps
 0.72 Mbps
 2.88 Mbps 
 4.4 Mbps
The correct answer is: 4.4 Mbps


Question 7

Question text
Which version of NFS Mandates strong security
Select one:
 NFSv1
 NFSv2 
 NFSv3
 NFSv4
The correct answer is: NFSv4


Question 8
What level of RAID supported by some NAS systems?
Select one:
 RAID-6
 RAID-10
 RAID-5 
 None
Feedback
Your answer is incorrect.
The correct answer is: RAID-6


Question 9
Estimate the sustained transfer rate of a drive if disk drive spins at 7200 RPM, has a sector size of 512 bytes, and holds 160 sectors per track around
Select one:
 9400 KB/s
 9600 KB/s
 9800 KB/s 
 10000 KB/s
Feedback
Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is: 9800 KB/s
Question 10
Best I/O Technique for low volume data transfer
Select one:
 Polling
 Interrupt Driven 
 DMA
 b and c
Feedback
Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is: Interrupt Driven


Question 11
Which storage Technology uses low level disk drive access commands like READ block, WRITE block and READ capacity
Select one:
 NAS
 SAN
 DAS 
 All the above
Feedback
Your answer is incorrect.
The correct answer is: SAN


Question 12
If average latency is 2.99 ms and average seeks time is 4.7 ms, then IOPS of the disk will be?
Select one:
 129
 130 
 128
 131
Feedback
Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is: 130


Question 13
Wear leveling affects
Select one:
 Hard disk
 Flash
 Optical storage 
 RAM
The correct answer is: Flash


Question 14
PCI Bus Lines contains
Select one:
 Control Lines
 Data Lines
 Address Lines 
 All the above
The correct answer is: All the above


Question 15
A hard disk has 63 sectors per track, 10 platters each with 2 recording surfaces and 1000 cylinders. The address of a sector is given as a triple (c, h, s), where c is the cylinder number, h is the surface number and s is the sector number. Thus, the 0th sector is addressed as (0, 0, 0), the 1st sector as (0, 0, 1), and so on
The address <400,16,39> corresponds to sector number:

Select one:
 505035
 505036 
 505037
 505047
The correct answer is: 505037


Question 16
How do we meet memory bandwidth requirements?

Select one:
 L1 cache, L2 cache and DRAM
 Direct Attached Storage and Network Storage
 Archival Storage 
 All the above
The correct answer is: All the above


Question 17
Which option is dedicated for file sharing?
Select one:
 bimodal
 network attached storage
 stealth 
 storage area network
The correct answer is: network attached storage


Question 18
A certain hard disk has 16 cylinders, 480 tracks per cylinder, 32 sectors per track, and 512 bytes per sector. What is its storage capacity?
Select one:
 125,829,120 bytes
 125,929,120 bytes 
 125,729,120 bytes

125,629,120 bytes
The correct answer is: 125,829,120 bytes


Question 19
Without power down a machine how to remove hard drives?
Select one:
 fast booting
 hot swapping
 drive duplexing 
 drive mirroring
The correct answer is: hot swapping


Question 20
Do iSCSI storage mandatory to required switch?
Select one:
 Yes
 No
 None 
 a & b both
The correct answer is: No

Data Storage Technologies and Networks






1. Wear leveling affects
Select one:

  •  Hard disk
  •  Flash  
  •  Optical storage
  •  RAM


The correct answer is: Flash


Question 2

Without power down a machine how to remove hard drives?
Select one:

  •  fast booting
  •  hot swapping  
  •  drive duplexing
  •  drive mirroring

Feedback
Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is: hot swapping


Question 3

Do iSCSI storage mandatory to required switch?
Select one:

  •  Yes
  •  No  
  •  None
  •  a & b both

Feedback
Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is: No


Question 4

Estimate the sustained transfer rate of a drive if disk drive spins at 7200 RPM, has a sector size of 512 bytes, and holds 160 sectors per track around
Select one:

  •  9400 KB/s
  •  9600 KB/s  
  •  9800 KB/s
  •  10000 KB/s

Feedback
Your answer is incorrect.
The correct answer is: 9800 KB/s



Question 5

A hard disk has 63 sectors per track, 10 platters each with 2 recording surfaces and 1000 cylinders. The address of a sector is given as a triple (c, h, s), where c is the cylinder number, h is the surface number and s is the sector number. Thus, the 0th sector is addressed as (0, 0, 0), the 1st sector as (0, 0, 1), and so on
The address <400,16,39> corresponds to sector number:

Select one:

  •  505035
  •  505036
  •  505037  
  •  505047

Feedback
Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is: 505037


Question 6

If MTTF of  a disk is 80000hrs what us MTTF of an array of 8 disks
Select one:

  •  640000 hrs  
  •  10000 hrs
  •  80000 hrs
  •  40000 hrs

Feedback
Your answer is incorrect.
The correct answer is: 10000 hrs



Question 7

Best I/O Technique for low volume data transfer
Select one:

  1.  Polling
  2.  Interrupt Driven
  3.  DMA  
  4.  b and c

Feedback
Your answer is incorrect.
The correct answer is: Interrupt Driven


Question 8

How many disk failure can disk failure can be withstood by RAID 6?
Select one:

  •  1
  •  2  
  •  3
  •  4

Feedback
Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is: 2


Question 9

Identify a network file protocol in the below mentioned set
Select one:

  •  FC
  •  CIFS  
  •  SCSI
  •  NAS

Feedback
Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is: CIFS


Question 10

A computer has a single cache with a hit time of 4 ns and hit rate is 90%. Main memory has a 35 ns access time. What is the computer’s effective access time?
Select one:

  •  5 ns
  •  7.5 ns  
  •  5.75 ns
  •  6 ns

Feedback
Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is: 7.5 ns


Question 11

Which of the following RAID levels guarantees double disk failure protection?
Select one:

  •  Raid 5
  •  Raid 6  
  •  Raid 0+1
  •  Raid 1+0

Feedback
Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is: Raid 6



Question 12

What is the capacity of the disk with 5 platters. 2 surfaces per platter, 20000 tracks per surface, 300 sectors per track and 512 bytes per sector
Select one:

  •  30.72GB  
  •  24.40GB
  •  21.40GB
  •  15.16GB

Feedback
Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is: 30.72GB


Question 13

Which storage Technology uses low level disk drive access commands like READ block, WRITE block and READ capacity
Select one:

  •  NAS  
  •  SAN
  •  DAS
  •  All the above

Feedback
Your answer is incorrect.
The correct answer is: SAN


Question 14

How do we meet memory bandwidth requirements?

Select one:

  •  L1 cache, L2 cache and DRAM  
  •  Direct Attached Storage and Network Storage
  •  Archival Storage
  •  All the above

Feedback
Your answer is incorrect.
The correct answer is: All the above


Question 15

If average latency is 2.99 ms and average seeks time is 4.7 ms, then IOPS of the disk will be?
Select one:

  •  129
  •  130  
  •  128
  •  131

Feedback
Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is: 130



Question 16

Which of the following model makes the server to keep track of cached copies and notifies them on update

Select one:

  •  Asynchronous writing model  
  •  Cache verification model
  •  Callback model
  •  Leasing model

Feedback
Your answer is incorrect.
The correct answer is: Callback model


Question 17

What level of RAID supported by some NAS systems?
Select one:

  •  RAID-6
  •  RAID-10
  •  RAID-5
  •  None  

Feedback
Your answer is incorrect.
The correct answer is: RAID-6



Question 18

If read and write performance is the only criterion, which would you choose?
Select one:

  •  RAID 0  
  •  RAID 1
  •  RAID 5
  •  RAID 50

Feedback
Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is: RAID 0



Question 19

Which version of NFS Mandates strong security
Select one:

  1.  NFSv1
  2.  NFSv2
  3.  NFSv3
  4.  NFSv4  

Feedback
Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is: NFSv4


Question 20
PCI Bus Lines contains
Select one:

  •  Control Lines
  •  Data Lines
  •  Address Lines
  •  All the above  

Feedback
Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is: All the above

                                  Software Architectures


Q.1 Quality attributes that are visible at runtime
Select one:
 a. All of the above 
 b. Performance &amp; modifiability
 c. Modfiability &amp; usability
 d. Security &amp; performance
Feedback
The correct answer is: Security &amp; performance

Question 2
Q.2 Which of the following quality design decision helps in create,delete and use of data structure
Select one:
 a. Coordination
 b. Data Model 
 c. Resource management
 d. Technology Choice
Feedback
The correct answer is: Data Model

Question 3

What concept is followed by Conceptual integrity?
Select one:
 1. Architecture should do similar things in similar ways 
 2. None of the mentioned


 3. Architecture should do different things in different ways
 4. Architecture should do different things in similar ways


The correct answer is: Architecture should do similar things in similar ways

Question 4
Q.04 "Given app does not work with my mobile"
Select one:
 a. Integrability 
 b. Functionality
 c. Usability
 d. Modifiability
Feedback
The correct answer is: Integrability


Question 5
Question text
The full form of POFOD is
Select one:
 Performance of Features of Design Decisions
 Performance of Fault of Detection
 Portability of Factory on Demand
 Probability Of Failure On Demand 
The correct answer is: Probability Of Failure On Demand


Question 6
One of the statements given below is not true with respect to stakeholders' priorities. Which one?
Select one:
 Release & Configuration Manager: How do I replace of a subsystem with minimal impact ?
 Application Development team: How do I plan for division of work? 
 Users/Customers: How easy it is to use?
 Database Designer: Information security issues?
Feedback
Your answer is incorrect.
The correct answer is: Release & Configuration Manager: How do I replace of a subsystem with minimal
impact ?


Question 7

Q.7 Which requirements can affect binding time decisions out of the following mentioned?
Select one:
 a. Regional distinctions
 b. Portability
 c. Configurations
 d. All of the choices given 

Feedback
The correct answer is: All of the choices given


Question 8
Q.8 Which software structure of Allocation structure is useful for performance, availability?
Select one:
 a. Deployment 
 b. None of the above
 c. Work assignment
 d. Implementation
Feedback
The correct answer is: Deployment


Question 9

Q.9 Tactics for performance improvement include (Pick the wrong option)
Select one:
 a. Replication of information 
 b. Load balancing
 c. Adding more people to the project
 d. Parallel processing
Feedback
The correct answer is: Adding more people to the project


Question 10
One of the Society Business goals is:
Select one:
 Maximum Profit in short time
 Run a stable organization
 Operate effectively within legal environment
 Expand market share 
Feedback
The correct answer is: Operate effectively within legal environment


Question 11
What makes a good architecture?

Select one:
 All of the mentioned
 The architect should have the technical requirements for the system and an articulated and prioritized list of qualitative properties 
 The architecture may not be the product of a single architect or a small group
 The architecture may not be well documented

The correct answer is: The architect should have the technical requirements for the system and an articulated and prioritized list of qualitative properties


Question 12

One of the statements given below is true with respect to stakeholders' priorities. Which one?
Select one:
 Chief Technologist: Does it adhere to organization standards ?
 Database Designer: Build strategy
 System Maintainer: Performance and scalability
 Infrastructure Manager: How fast can I diagnosis of faults and failures and how quickly I can recover? 
Feedback
Your answer is incorrect.
The correct answer is: Chief Technologist: Does it adhere to organization standards ?


Question 13

Q.13 Tactics for Security include (Pick the wrong answer)
Select one:
 a. Audit trail 
 b. Authorization
 c. Locking
 d. Encryption
Feedback
The correct answer is: Locking

Question 14
Q.14 Which of the following is right dependence relationship?

Select one:
 a. Modifiability depends on system’s modularization
 b. All of the above 
 c. Re-usability depends on the volume and complexity of the inter-component communication and coordination
 d. Performance depends on how strongly components are coupled with other components in system
Feedback
The correct answer is: Modifiability depends on system’s modularization


Question 15

A running process resets the timer periodically and it starts counting again.  If the timer is not reset it reaches a high enough count to trigger an alarm. A message is passed  to an appropriate location for corrective action.  This is a tactics for:
Select one:
 Fault Detection 
 Fault Prevention
 Error masking
 Redundancy

The correct answer is: Fault Detection


Question 16
Q.16 Which software structure of component connector structure is useful for "modifiability"?
Select one:
 a. Process
 b. Client-server 
 c. Shared Date
 d. Concurrency
Feedback
The correct answer is: Shared Date


Question 17

Q.17 Which of the following is not related to Resource Mgmt of Performance
Select one:
 a. System elements that need to be aware of, and manage, time and other performance-critical resources 
 b. Maintaining multiple copies of key data would benefit performance
 c. Prioritization of resources
 d. Process/thread models
Feedback
The correct answer is: Prioritization of resources


Question 18

Q.18 In 4+1 view, which view is concerned with software management?
Select one:
 a. Developement view
 b. Physical view
 c. Process view
 d. Logical view 
Feedback
The correct answer is: Developement view


Question 19

Q.19 Why is software architecture called vehicle for stakeholder communication?
Select one:
 a. Architecture provides a common language in which different concerns can be expressed
 b. Both a and b
 c. Each stakeholder of a software system is concerned with different characteristics of the system affected by architecture
 d. Architecture is more of technical in nature and not meant for all stakeholders 
Feedback
The correct answer is: Both a and b


Question 20

What are the characteristics does a good SA consists of?
Select one:
 a, b
 Reliability, Usability
 Completeness, Well formedeness
 Consistency, Feasibility, Adequacy 

The correct answer is: a, b

Monday, 9 April 2018

                     Design and Analysis of Algorithms





1. The time required to find shortest path in a graph with n vertices and e edges is


Select one:
a.  O (n2) Correct
b.  O (n)       
c. O (e)   
d.  O (e2)               
Feedback
The correct answer is:  O (n2)


2. A sub-sequence of a given sequence is just the given sequence with some elements (possibly none or all) left out. We are given two sequences X[m] and Y[n] of lengths m and n respectively, with indexes of X and Y starting from 0.
We wish to find the length of the longest common sub-sequence(LCS) of X[m] and Y[n] as l(m,n), where an incomplete recursive definition for the function l(i,j) to compute the length of The LCS of X[m] and Y[n] is given below:

l(i,j) = 0, if either i=0 or j=0
       = expr1, if i,j > 0 and X[i-1] = Y[j-1]
       = expr2, if i,j > 0 and X[i-1] != Y[j-1]

Select one:
a. expr2 ≡ max(l(i-1,j-1),l(i,j))
b. expr1 ≡ l(i, j-1)
c. expr2 ≡ max(l(i-1, j), l(i, j-1)) Correct
d. expr1 ≡ l(i-1, j) + 1
Feedback
The correct answer is: expr2 ≡ max(l(i-1, j), l(i, j-1))


3.In Ford-Fulkerson algorithm, flow of the augmenting path is selected based on


Select one:
a. cf(p) =min{ cf (u,v):(u,v)is in p }
b. cf(p) =max{ cf (u,v):(u,v)is in p }
c.    cf(p) =min{ cf (u,v):(u,v)is in f-P } Incorrect
d. cf(p) =max{ cf (u,v):(u,v)is in f-P }
Feedback
The correct answer is: cf(p) =min{ cf (u,v):(u,v)is in p }


4. what is an optimal Huffman code for alphabet b of the following set of frequencies a: 45, b:13, c:12, d:16, e:9, f:5




Select one:
a. 001
b. 100
c. 111
d. 101 Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: 101

5. Match the following:

         List – I                           List – II

         1 Quick Sort                a Divide and Conquer

         2 Graph colouring       b Greedy

         3 String editing           c Dynamic

                                                Programming

         4 Prim’s Algorithm     d Back tracking


Select one:
1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c Incorrect
1-a, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b
None of these




6. kruskal’s algorithm uses-------- and prim’s algorithm uses------ in determining the MST



Select one:
a. vertex,edges
b. vertex,vertex
c. edges,vertex    Correct
d. edges,edges
Feedback
The correct answer is: edges,vertex 





7.Ram and Shyam have been asked to show that a certain problem Π is NP-complete. Ram shows a polynomial time reduction from the 3-SAT problem to Π, and Shyam shows a polynomial time reduction from Π to 3-SAT. Which of the following can be inferred from these reductions ?



Select one:
a. Π is NP-complete Correct
b. Π is NP-hard but not NP-complete
c. Π is in NP, but is not NP-complete
d. Π is neither NP-hard, nor in NP
Feedback
The correct answer is: Π is NP-complete


8.Consider the following two problems of graph.
1) Given a graph, find if the graph has a cycle that visits every vertex exactly once except the first visited vertex which must be visited again to complete the cycle.
 2) Given a graph, find if the graph has a cycle that visits every edge exactly once. Which of the following is true about above two problems
Select one:
a.   Both problems belong to NP complete set
b. Both problems belong to P set
c. Problem 1 belongs to P set and 2 belongs to NP Complete set
d. Problem 1 belongs NP Complete set and 2 belongs to P Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: Problem 1 belongs NP Complete set and 2 belongs to P


9.If all c(i, j )’s and r(i, j)’s are calculated, then OBST algorithm in worst case takes one of the following time.


 


Select one:
a.  O(log n) 
b. O(n2)               
c. O(n log n)       

d.  O(n3)                 Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is:  O(n3)       


10.To implement Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm on unweighted graphs so that it runs in linear time, the data structure to be used is:



Select one:
a. B-Tree
b. Heap
c. Stack
d. Queue Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: Queue

11.For 0/1 KNAPSACK problem, the algorithm takes ________ amount of time for memory table, and ______time to determine the optimal load, for N objects and W as the capacity of KNAPSACK.


Select one:
a. O(N), O(NW) 
b.   O(N+W), O(NW)
c. O(NW), O(N+W) Correct
d. O(NW), O(N)   
Feedback
The correct answer is: O(NW), O(N+W)

12.Match the following

Group A                                                                         Group B
a) Dijkstra's single shortest path                                   p) Dynamic Programming
b) Bellmen Ford's single shortest path algorithm           q) Backtracking
c) Floyd Warshell's all pair shortest path algorithm         r) Greedy Algorithm

Select one:
a. a-p,  b-p, c-p
b. a-r,  b-p, c-p Correct
c. a-r,  b-q, c-p
d. a-p,  b-r, c-q
Feedback
The correct answer is: a-r,  b-p, c-p


13.A simple Graph G = L U R, set of 2 non-empty vertices and each vertex from L  has an edge to atleast one vertex of R, is called as


Select one:
a. Bipartite Graph
b.  Bifocal graph Incorrect
c.   Complete graph
d. Flow-network graph
Feedback
The correct answer is: Bipartite Graph


14. Find the Running Time of the fastest algorithm to calculate the shortest path between any two vertices of a graph where all edges have equal weights.


Select one:
0(V  log2V+E )
0 (E+V) Correct
0(V log V2+E)
0 (V+E) log2V
Feedback
Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is: 0 (E+V)


15.In an unweighted, undirected connected graph, the shortest path from a node S to every other node is computed most efficiently, in terms of time complexity by
 

Select one:
a. Dijkstra’s algorithm starting from S.
b. Performing a BFS starting from S Correct
c. Performing a DFS starting from S.
d. Warshall’s algorithm
Feedback
The correct answer is: Performing a BFS starting from S



16. Which of the following statement(s)is / are correct regarding Bellman-Ford shortest path algorithm?

P: Always finds a negative weighted cycle, if one exist s.
Q: Finds whether any negative weighted cycle is reachable
   from the source.

Select one:
a. Neither P nor Q
b. P Only
c. Both P and Q
d. Q Only Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: Q Only


17. There are 5 items as follows

Items

wi

vi

Item1

5 pounds

30$

Item2

10 pounds

20$

Item3

20 pounds

100$

Item4

30 pounds

90$

Item5

40 pounds

160$

The knapsack can hold 60 pounds find the optimal solution


                    Design and Analysis of Algorithms



Select one:
a. 250$   
b. 270 $ 
c. 260 $  Correct
d. 290$
Feedback
The correct answer is: 260 $


18. In flow networks Residual capacity Cf (u,v)=



Select one:
a. t(u,v) – s(u,v)
b. s(u,v) – t(u, v)
c. c(u,v) – f(u,v) Correct
d. f(u, v) – c(u,v)
Feedback
The correct answer is: c(u,v) – f(u,v)


19. Four matrices M1, M2, M3 and M4 of dimensions pxq, qxr, rxs and sxt respectively can be multiplied is several ways with different number of total scalar multiplications. For example, when multiplied as ((M1 X M2) X (M3 X M4)), the total number of multiplications is pqr + rst + prt. When multiplied as (((M1 X M2) X M3) X M4), the total number of scalar multiplications is pqr + prs + pst.

If p = 10, q = 100, r = 20, s = 5 and t = 80, then the number of scalar multiplications needed is

Select one:
a. 19000 Correct
b. 248000
c. 25000
d. 44000
Feedback
The correct answer is: 19000


20. Consider the decision problem 2CNFSAT defined as follows:



Select one:
a. NP-hard, but not NP-complete.
b. solvable in polynomial time by reduction to directed graph reachability
c. solvable in constant time since any input instance is satisfiable. Incorrect
d. NP-Complete.
Feedback
The correct answer is: solvable in polynomial time by reduction to directed graph reachability




Saturday, 7 April 2018

                     Design and Analysis of Algorithms





1.Which of the given options provides the increasing order of asymptotic complexity of functions f1, f2, f3 and f4?
  f1(n) = 2^n
  f2(n) = n^(3/2)
  f3(n) = nLogn
  f4(n) = n^(Logn)


Select one:
a. f3, f2, f1, f4
b. f2, f3, f1, f4
c. f2, f3, f4, f1
d. f3, f2, f4, f1 Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: f3, f2, f4, f1


2.Steps of Divide and Conquer approach


Select one:
a. Divide, Conquer and Combine Correct
b. Combine, Conquer and Divide
c. Combine, Divide and Conquer
d. Divide, Combine and Conquer
Feedback
The correct answer is: Divide, Conquer and Combine


3.The complexity of searching an element from a set of n elements using Binary search algorithm is


Select one:
a. O(n log n)
b. O(log n)
c. O(n2) Incorrect
d. O(n)
Feedback
The correct answer is: O(log n)



4.In the development of dynamic programming the value of an optimal solution is computed in


Select one:
a. Top up fashion
b. Bottom up fashion Correct
c. In any way
Feedback
The correct answer is: Bottom up fashion


5.If length of the rod is 8 and the values of different pieces are given as following, then the maximum obtainable value is 22 (by cutting in two pieces of lengths 2 and 6.
length  | 1   2   3   4   5   6   7   8 
--------------------------------------------
price    | 1   5   8   9  10  17  17  20
What is the worst case running time for the above problem



Select one:
a. O(2n)
b. O(log n)
c. O(n2) Correct
d. O(n log n)
Feedback
The correct answer is: O(n2)


6.The number of operations in Matrix multiplications M1, M2, M3, M4 and M5 of sizes 5X10, 10X100, 100X2, 2X20 and 20X50


Select one:
a. 5830
b. 4600 Correct
c. 6900
d. 12890
Feedback
The correct answer is: 4600


7.Which case of Master’s theorem is applicable in the recurrence relation T(n)=0.5*T(n/2)+1/n?


Select one:
a. Case 3
b. Case 1
c. Master’s theorem is not applicable Correct
d. Case 2
Feedback
The correct answer is: Master’s theorem is not applicable


8. ______ is a condition that is always true at a particular point in an algorithm.


Select one:
a. assertion
b. constant
c. exception
d. invariant Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: invariant


9.Division Pattern of Problems in Divide and Conquer approach

Select one:
a. Iterative
b. Recursive Correct
c. Parallel
d. Random
Feedback
The correct answer is: Recursive


10.RANDOMIZED-HIRE – ASSISTANT (n)
Randomly permute the list of candidates
Best=0
For i=1 to n
    interview candidate i
    If candidate I is better than candidate best
        best=i
        hire candidates i
    The expected hiring cost of the procedure is.


Select one:
a. O( n2)
b. O(ln n)
c. O( n)
d. O(n log n) Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: O(ln n)


11.RANDOMIZE-IN-PLACE(A)
n=A.length
For i=1 to n
Swap A[i] with A[RANDOM(I,n.]
The time complexity of above algorithm is


Select one:
a. O(n3)
b. O(n2) Incorrect
c. O(n)
d. O(n ln n)
Feedback
The correct answer is: O(n)


12.The running time of quick sort depends on the selection of.


Select one:
a. Selection of pivot elements Correct
b. Number of input
c. Number of passes
d. Arrangements of the elements
Feedback
The correct answer is: Selection of pivot elements


13. PERMUTE-BY-SHORTING(A)
n=A.length
Let P[1…n] be a new array
For i=1 to n
    P[i]=RANDOM(1,n3)
Sort A, using P as sort keys
The time complexity of above algorithm is


Select one:
a. T(n3)
b. T(n ln n)
c. T(n2)
d. T(n) Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: T(n ln n)




14.RANDOMIZE-IN-PLACE(A)
n=A.length
For i=1 to n
Swap A[i] with A[RANDOM(I,n)]
The above procedure RANDOMIZE-IN-PLACE(A) permutation occurs with probability


Select one:
a. Probability 1/n!
b. Probability n!
c. Probability n2 Incorrect
d. Probability n
Feedback
The correct answer is: Probability 1/n!



15.Which of the following sorting algorithms does not have a worst case running time of O(n2) ?


Select one:
a. Quick sort
b. Merge sort
c. Insertion sort
d. Bubble sort Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: Merge sort


16.Merge Sort divides the list in


Select one:
a. N equal parts Incorrect
b. Two equal parts
c. Two parts, may not be equal
d. N parts, may not be equal
Feedback
The correct answer is: Two equal parts


17.Time complexity of matrix chain multiplication


Select one:
a. O(n2)
b. O(n)
c. O(nlogn) Incorrect
d. O(n3)
Feedback
The correct answer is: O(n3)


18.A sort which relatively passes through a list to exchange the first element with any elementless than it and then repeats with a new first element is called________.


Select one:
a. Quick sort
b. heap sort
c. Insertion sort Correct
d. Bubble sort
Feedback
The correct answer is: Insertion sort


19.Apply Master theorem to T(n)=3.T(n/2)+n^2 and write what is f(n)


Select one:
a. f(n)=n/2+n^2 Incorrect
b. f(n)=n/2
c. f(n)=n^2
d. f(n)=3n/2
Feedback
The correct answer is: f(n)=n^2


20.RANDOMIZE-IN-PLACE(A)
n=A.length
For i=1 to n
Swap A[i] with A[RANDOM(I,n.]
The above procedure RANDOMIZE-IN-PLACE(A) computes


Select one:
a. a uniform deliberate permutation
b. a different random permutation
c. a different deliberate permutation
d. a uniform random permutation Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: a uniform random permutation


21.Run Time of Merge Sort is


Select one:
a. BIG O of N log N Incorrect
b. Gamma of n log N
c. Theta of N log N
d. Omega of N log N
Feedback
The correct answer is: Theta of N log N


22.Time complexities of three algorithms are given. Which should execute the slowest for large values of N?


Select one:
a. O(N)
b. O(N ½)
c. O(log n) Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: O(N)


23.Time Complexity of Optimal binary search tree.


Select one:
a. O(logn)
b. O(n) Incorrect
c. O(n!)
Feedback
The correct answer is: O(logn)



24.Data Structure used for the Merge Sort

Select one:
a. Two Pointers
b. Two pointers and N Extra Arrays
c. 2N/2 pointers and N/2 Extra Arrays Incorrect
d. Two Pointers and an Extra Array
Feedback
The correct answer is: Two Pointers and an Extra Array



25.In dynamic programming, the output to stage n become the input to


Select one:
a. stage n-1 Correct
b. stage n+1
c. stage n itself
d. stage n-2
Feedback
The correct answer is: stage n-1


26.Time complexity of knapsack 0/1

where n is the number of items and W is the capacity of knapsack.



Select one:
a. O(W)
b. O(n)
c. O(nW) Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: O(nW)



27.In dynamic programming, the output to stage n become the input to


Select one:
a. Objective function Incorrect
b. Feasible solution
c. Decision stages
d. Optimum solution
Feedback
The correct answer is: Decision stages



28.Master theorem applies to recurrences of the form (a=1 and b>1) are two constants.


Select one:
a. T(n)=a.T(n/b)+f(n)
b. T(n)=n.T(n/2)+b.f(n)
c. T(n)=a.T(n-1)+b
d. T(n)=n.T(n-3)+b Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: T(n)=a.T(n/b)+f(n)



29.Time complexity of LCS


Select one:
a. O(m!)
b. O(mn) Correct
c. O(n!)
Feedback
The correct answer is: O(mn)


Tuesday, 3 April 2018

                          Software Testing Methodologies








1.Bug life cycle

Select one:
a. Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed
b. Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed
c. Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed
d. Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed  Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed



2.The output of product testing is:


Select one:
a. Test Data
b. Test Plan
c. Test Reports
d. Test Cases Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: Test Reports




3.A committe of five is to be formed from six ladies and four gentlemen.In how many ways this can be done so that the committee contains exactly two ladies:


Select one:
a. 15
b. 30
c. 60 Correct
d. 40
Feedback
The correct answer is: 60

4.Boundary Value Analysis focuses on:
Select one:
a. The boundary of the input space to identify test cases
b. The boundary of the output space to identify test cases
c. The boundary of the inner space to identify test cases
d. None Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: The boundary of the input space to identify test cases



5.Number of unique test cases generated in Robust Boundary Value Analysis for a function of n variables is


Select one:
a. 7n+1
b. 6n+1
c. 4n+1
d. 7*n Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: 6n+1

6.Consider the statement, “If number is divisible by 33 then number is divisible by 3 and by 11.” Which of the following statements is equivalent to this statement?

Select one:
a.  If number is not divisible by 33 then number is divisible by 3 or divisible by 11.
b. If number is not divisible by 33 then number is not divisible by 3 or not divisible by 11.
c. If number is divisible by 3 and divisible by 11 then number is divisible by 33. Incorrect
d. If number is not divisible by 3 or not divisible by 11 then number is not divisible by 33.
Feedback
The correct answer is: If number is not divisible by 3 or not divisible by 11 then number is not divisible by 33.


7.Find the invalid equivalence class for the following test case. Draw a line up to the length of 4 inches

Select one:
a. Curve Correct
b. Line with 1 dot-width
c. line with 1 inch.
d. line with 4 inches
Feedback
The correct answer is: Curve


8.Find the Equivalence class for the following test case. Enter a number to test the validity of being accepting the numbers between 1 and 99

Select one:
a. All numbers greater than 99
b. All numbers 99
c. All numbers between 1 and 99  Correct
d. Number = 0
Feedback
The correct answer is: All numbers between 1 and 99



9.A lot consists of 10 good articles, 4 with minor defects and 2 with major defects. Two articles are chosen from the lotat random (without replacement). Find the probability that neither is good:


Select one:
a.
1/8 Correct
b.
7/8
c.
1/120
d. 3/8
Feedback
The correct answer is:
1/8


10.Number of unique test cases generated in Worst-Case Boundary Value Analysis for a function of n variables is

Select one:
a. 4n+1
b. 5^n Correct
c. 7^n
d. 6n+1
Feedback
The correct answer is: 5^n


11.Identify the invalid Set operation

Select one:
a. Addition Correct
b. Complement
c. Intersection
d. Union
Feedback
The correct answer is: Addition


12.Which one is the valid recommendation for identification of valid equivalence class?
Select one:
a. Equivalence class for invalid inputs
b. No need to look for membership in a group
c. No need to look for range in numbers
d.
None Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: Equivalence class for invalid inputs


13.A lot consists of 10 good articles, 4 with minor defects and 2 with major defects. Two articles are chosen from the lot at random (without replacement). Find the probability that both are good:
Select one:
a. 1/8
b. 3/8 Correct
c. 5/8
d. 7/8
Feedback
The correct answer is: 3/8


14.Defects are least costly to correct at what stage of the development cycle?

Select one:
a. Analysis and Design
b. Requirements  Correct
c. Testing
d. Coding
Feedback
The correct answer is: Requirements



15.Which of the following types of testing are carried out for an erroneous input by the end user?

Select one:
a. Performance testing
b. Error handling testing Correct
c. Conversion testing
d. Parallel testing
Feedback
The correct answer is: Error handling testing


16.The specification: an integer field shall contain values from and including 1 to and including 12 (number of the month) Which equivalence class partitioning is correct?

Select one:
a. Less than 1, 1 through 11, and above
b. Less than 1, 1 through 12, larger than 12 Correct
c. Less than 0, 1 through 12, larger than 12
d. Less than 1, 1 through 11, larger than 12
Feedback
The correct answer is: Less than 1, 1 through 12, larger than 12

17.What are the two important requirements of class partitioning?


Select one:
a. Disjointedness and partial-completeness
b. Completeness and Non-Redundancy Correct
c. Partial-completeness and Non-Redundancy
d. Completeness and Redundancy
Feedback
The correct answer is: Completeness and Non-Redundancy



18.Which of the following is an example of an Error-handlingTesting?

Select one:
a. Attempted access without a proper password to the on-line data entry and display transactions (notification to the user of invalid authentication) will be tested. Incorrect
b. Testing evaluated against the performance requirements by measuring the run times of several jobs using production data volumes
c. System is stressed beyond its specifications to check how and when it fails. Performed under heavy load like putting large number beyond storage capacity, complex database queries, and continuous input to system or database load.
d. Testing to confirm that app can recover from all types of errors when they occur without terminating the application.
Feedback
The correct answer is: Testing to confirm that app can recover from all types of errors when they occur without terminating the application.


19.What are the criteria for good Test Cases?


Select one:
a. High probability of finding a defect which is yet to be discovered
b. It is not redundant
c. Neither too simple nor too complex
d. All Correct
Feedback
The correct answer is: All


20.A lock which opens with a sequence of digits is an example for

Select one:
a. Regular lock
b. Combination lock
c. Both Permutation and Combination lock Incorrect
d. Permutation lock
Feedback
The correct answer is: Permutation lock


21.A regression test

Select one:
a. Will help ensure unchanged areas of the software have not been affected Correct
b. Can only be run during user acceptance testing
c.  Will always be automated
d. Will help ensure changed areas of the software have not been affected
Feedback
The correct answer is: Will help ensure unchanged areas of the software have not been affected



22.Number of unique test cases generated in Robust Worst-Case Boundary Value Analysis for a function of n variables is
Select one:
a. 7^n
b. 5n+1
c. 7n+1
d. 5^n Incorrect
Feedback
The correct answer is: 7^n



23.Alpha Testing is:

Select one:
a. Pre- release testing by end user representatives at the developer's site Correct
b. Pre- release testing by    end user represe ntatives at   their sites
c. Post- release testing by end user representatives at the developer's site
d. The first testing that is performed
Feedback
The correct answer is: Pre- release testing by end user representatives at the developer's site



24.Equivalence partitioning examples in RL 3 discusses

Select one:
a. Finding max of 1000 numbers and max of three numbers Correct
b. Finding max of two numbers and max of three numbers
c. Finding max of 1 to 1000 numbers and max of two numbers
d. Finding max of two numbers only
Feedback
The correct answer is: Finding max of 1000 numbers and max of three numbers



25.In Equivalent Class Testing, what makes us consider them as equivalent?


Select one:
a. They involve the same input variable Incorrect
b. They result in similar operations in the program
c. They affect the same output variable
d. All
Feedback



The correct answer is: All



26.Types of Equivalence Classes are


Select one:
a. Weak Normal, Strong Normal, Weak Robust, Normal Robust
b. Weak Normal, Strong Normal, Weak Robust, Strong Robust Correct
c. Weak Normal, Robust Normal, Weak Robust, Strong Robust
d. All
Feedback
The correct answer is: Weak Normal, Strong Normal, Weak Robust, Strong Robust


27.A black-box test technique is


Select one:
a. Based on specifications Incorrect
b. Independent of implementation
c. A functional testing focuses on input and corresponding output
d. All
Feedback
The correct answer is: All

28.An input field takes the number from 10 to 50. The boundary values for testing this field are:

Select one:
a. 10,30,50 Incorrect
b. 9,30,51
c. 10,15,50,55
d.  9,10,50,51
Feedback
The correct answer is:  9,10,50,51


29.RADAR system operates in normal temp (28 degC), maximum temp at (70 degC) and minimum temp at (-30 degC) as per the specification. At which temperatures do you test the system for normal boundary value testing?


Select one:
a. 28 degC, 70 degC, -30 degC, 72 degC, -28 degC
b. 28 degC, 70 degC, -30 degC, 72 degC, -33 degC Incorrect
c.
28 degC, 70 degC, -30 degC, 69 degC, -29 degC
d. 28 degC, 70 degC, -30 degC, 68 degC, -33 degC
Feedback
The correct answer is:
28 degC, 70 degC, -30 degC, 69 degC, -29 degC



30.Weak Robust Equivalence Class Testing is defined as:


Select one:
a. The name of the form Weak Robust is counterintuitive and oxymoronic
b. Robust comes from the consideration of invalid values Incorrect
c. Weak refers to the single fault assumption
d. All
Feedback
The correct answer is: All